Aug 6, 2012

CCNA 2 Chapter 1 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012


1.Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.) 

RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.

ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.

NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.

Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.

Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.

2.Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.) 



1

2

3

4

5

6

3.If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?

The startup sequence will reset.

The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.

The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.

The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements.

4.Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup? 

load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS

load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware

check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

5.What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file? 

NVRAM, FLASH, ROM

FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE

NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

FLASH, TFTP, ROM

6.From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.) 

RAM

TFTP server

NVRAM

setup routine

Flash memory

terminal

7.Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.) 

packet switching

extension of network segments

segmentation of broadcast domains

selection of best path based on logical addressing

selection of best path based on physical addressing

8.What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.) 

decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header

uses the destination MAC Address in the IP Header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table

leaves the Layer 2 frame header intact when decapsulating the Layer 3 packet

uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table

encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into a special Layer 1 frame and forwards it to the exit interface

9.The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?

straight-through

rollover

cross-over

serial

10.Refer to the exhibit.

What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router? 

The passwords are encrypted.

The current configuration was saved to NVRAM.

The configuration that is shown will be the one used on the next reboot.

The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

11.Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.) 

Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.

Load balancing occurs when the same number of packets are sent over static and dynamic routes.

Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.

Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load balancing.

12.Refer to the exhibit. 


What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.) 

This router only has two interfaces.

The router interfaces are not operational yet.

This router is configured to forward packets to remote networks.

The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.

An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.8.2 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

13.The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.) 



Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224

Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

14.Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.) 

VTY interface

console interface

Ethernet interface

secret EXEC mode

privileged EXEC mode

router configuration mode

15.What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4 
R1(config-line)# password check123 
R1(config-line)# login 

ensures that a password is entered before entering user EXEC mode

sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

requires check123 to be entered before the configuration can be saved

creates a local user account for logging in to a router or switch


16.Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem? 

The destination networks do not exist.

The IP addresses on the router interfaces must be configured as network addresses and not host addresses.

The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

Each interface must be configured with the clock rate command.

17.A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM? 

Router1# copy running-config flash

Router1(config)# copy running-config flash

Router1# copy running-config startup-config

Router1(config)# copy running-config startup-config

Router1# copy startup-config running-config

Router1(config)# copy startup-config running-config


18.Refer to the exhibit. 


All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.) 

If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.1.1, it will be forwarded out interface Fa0/0.

If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 172.20.255.1, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/0.

If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 192.16.5.101, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.


19.What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface? 

only the Layer 2 source address

only the Layer 2 destination address

only the Layer 3 source address

only the Layer 3 destination address

the Layer 2 source and destination address

the Layer 3 source and destination address


20.Refer to the exhibit. 


Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.) 

source IP address: 192.168.10.129

source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677

source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666

destination IP address: 192.168.10.33

destination IP address: 192.168.10.134

destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

21.Refer to the exhibit. 


After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem? 

The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.

Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.

The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.

The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

Read more »

Jul 24, 2012

CCNA 1 Final Answers Updated 2012

DOWN LOAD CCNA 1 FINAL ANSWER FULL 

1.As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0? 

255.255.0.0

255.255.248.0

255.255.252.0

255.255.254.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128

2.Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255? 

172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224

172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0

172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0

172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0

172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

3.Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.) 

physical addressing

encoding

routing

cabling

media access control

4.Refer to the exhibit. 


On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network? 

Host A was assigned a network address.

Host B was assigned a multicast address.

Host A and Host B belong to different networks.

The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.



5.Refer to the exhibit.

What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server? 

00-08-a3-b6-ce-46

198.133.219.25:80

http://www.cisco.com

6.The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data? 

service port number

host logical address

device physical address

virtual connection identifier
 
7.Refer to the exhibit.

The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue? 

issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0

issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1

issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0

issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1



8.Refer to the exhibit.

Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices? 

A, B, D, G

A, B, E, F

C, D, G, I

G, H, I, J


9.When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data? 

IP

UDP

Ethernet

a connectionless acknowledgement

an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service
 
10.Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data? 

application layer

presentation layer

session layer

transport layer



Read more »

Jul 19, 2012

CCNA 3 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
election of the root bridge
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
determination of the designated port for each segment

2.Refer to the exhibit.

The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?
Spanning tree blocks Gi0/1 on S3.
Gi0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
Port priority makes Gi0/2 on S1 a root port.
S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

3.Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
Non-root switches each have only one root port.

4.What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
shared
end-to-end
edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
point-to-point

5.What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
the max-age timer
the spanning-tree hold down timer
the forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay

6.What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every Ethernet LAN segment that links two switches?
alternate
backup
designated
edge

7.How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

8.Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
STP and RSTP have the same BPDU format and flag field information.
STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places designated ports into forwarding state immediately.

9.Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

10.In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
blocking
learning
disabling
listening
forwarding
11.What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network

12.Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

13.Refer to the exhibit.

What can be determined from the output shown?
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa0/2 and Fa0/4 have a cost of 38.
The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
STP is disabled on this switch.
The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

14.Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
base MAC address
switch location
memory size

15.Refer to the exhibit.

Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

16.Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

17.In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to negotiate a trunk between switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

18.Refer to the exhibit. 


All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?
Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will reply with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will reply with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

19.Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
immediately loses its edge status
inhibits the generation of a TCN
goes immediately to a learning state
disables itself
becomes a normal spanning-tree port

20.When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
bridge priority
MAC address
protocol
VLAN ID

Read more »

CCNA 3 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
VTP allows a switch to be configured to belong to more than one VTP domain.
VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.

2.What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)
unable to add VLANs
can add VLANs of local significance
forward broadcasts out all ports with no respect to VLAN information
can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain

3.Refer to the exhibit.

Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be on S2?
S2 will retain the VLANs as of the latest known revision.
S2 will automatically transition to VTP transparent mode.
S2 will remove all VLANs from the VLAN database until the cable is reconnected.
S2 will automatically send a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

4.Refer to the exhibit. 


All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?
All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.
Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.

5.Refer to the exhibit. 


The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.
VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.

6.Refer to the exhibit. 


S2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to S2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After S2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What will solve the problem?
Reset the revision number on S2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.
Reset each switch back to an earlier configuration and then re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they propagate throughout the network.
Change S1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat and change back to server mode.
Change S2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically propagate.


7.Which two events will cause the VTP revision number on a VTP server to change? (Choose two.)
adding VLANs
rebooting the switch
changing the VTP domain name
changing the switch to a VTP client
changing interface VLAN designations

8.What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
A port on the switch has been shutdown.
The switch is changed to the transparent mode.
A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.

9.Which two statements are true about VTP pruning? (Choose two.)
Pruning is enabled by default.
Pruning can only be configured on VTP servers.
Pruning must be configured on all VTP servers in the domain.
VLANs on VTP client-mode switches will not be pruned.
Pruning will prevent unnecessary flooding of broadcasts across trunks.

10.Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
revision number
domain name
pruning
mode
domain password
version number
11.Refer to the exhibit. 


All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab_Network?
The switch operates as a VTP client.
The switch operates in VTP transparent mode.
The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
The switch operates as a VTP server in the default VTP domain and does not affect the configuration in the existing VTP domain.

12.Refer to the exhibit.

Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the provided command output, what could be done to correct the problem?
Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.
The switches must be interconnected via an access link.
The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.
Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.

13.Refer to the exhibit.


Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches that are shown in the exhibit. What are two possible explanations for this? (Choose two.)
Switch1 is in client mode.
Switch2 is in server mode.
Switch2 is in transparent mode.
Switch1 is in a different management domain.
Switch1 has end devices that are connected to the ports.
Switch1 is using VTP version 1, and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.

14.Refer to the exhibit. 


Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.

15.Refer to the exhibit.

What information can be learned from the output provided?
It verifies the configured VTP password.
It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.
It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.
It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

16.Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.
Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.

17.Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
Switches must be connected via trunks.
The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

18.A network administrator is replacing a failed switch with a switch that was previously on the network. What precautionary step should the administrator take on the replacement switch to avoid incorrect VLAN information from propagating through the network?
Enable VTP pruning.
Change the VTP domain name.
Change the VTP mode to client.
Change all the interfaces on the switch to access ports.

19.What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

20.How are VTP messages sent between switches in a domain?
Layer 2 broadcast
Layer 2 multicast
Layer 2 unicast
Layer 3 broadcast
Layer 3 multicast
Layer 3 unicast

Read more »

CCNA 3 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.Refer to the exhibit. 


SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?

Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.

Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.

Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode.

Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface.

2.Refer to the exhibit. 


The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

There is a native VLAN mismatch.

The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.

The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.

VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

3.Refer to the exhibit. 


Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?

The default native VLAN is being used.

The trunking mode is set to auto.

Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.

VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.

4.Refer to the exhibit.

How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?

none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame

computer A, computer B, computer C

computer A, computer D, computer G

computer B, computer C

computer D, computer G

computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer H, computer I

5.A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?

VLAN 1 can never be deleted.

VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.

VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.

VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.

6.Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?

Disable DTP.

Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.

Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.

Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.

7.What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.

Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.

Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.

Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

8.What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)

VLAN1 should renamed.

VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.

All switch ports are members of VLAN1.

Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.

Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.

9.What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?

dynamic desirable mode

on or dynamic desirable mode

on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode

on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode

10.Refer to the exhibit.

Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The link between the switches is up but not trunked.

VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches.

The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.

Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

11.What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?

802.1q is Cisco proprietary.

802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.

802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.

802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.

12.Refer to the exhibit. 


Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)

The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.

The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.

A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.

The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.

Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.

13.Refer to the exhibit. 


Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, users on PC1 are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?

The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10 on S3.

The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port.

PC4 must use the same subnet as PC1.

A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches.

14.The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)

The VLANs may be named.

VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.

Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.

The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.

Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations.

15.Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol.

The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.

By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link.

A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches.

16.What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?

DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN.

The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic desirable.

The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.

A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.

17.Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)

VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.

VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.

VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.

VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.

VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.

18.What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?

Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs.

A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.

Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage.

Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.

19.Which statement describes how hosts on VLANs communicate?

Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk.

Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.

Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.

Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their network.

20.What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?

The ports cannot communicate with other ports.

The ports default back to the management VLAN.

The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1.

The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

21.Refer to the exhibit.

Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?

A

A, B

A, B, D, G

A, D, F

C, E

C, E, F

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CCNA 3 Chapter 2 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?

The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.

The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.

The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.

The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.

2.Refer to the exhibit. 


The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is "cisco." What can be determined from the output shown?

The enable password is encrypted by default.

An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.

Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.

This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.

3.Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)

The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.

The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.

The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.

The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password.

Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.

4.Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)

Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.

Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.

Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.

Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.

Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

5.What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

The SSH client on the switch is enabled.

Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.

A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.

The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.

6.What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)

Enable CDP on the switch.

Change passwords regularly.

Turn off unnecessary services.

Enable the HTTP server on the switch.

Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.

7.Refer to the exhibit. 


The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

No collisions will occur on this link.

Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.

The switch will have priority for transmitting data.

The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

8.Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?

user EXEC mode

privileged EXEC mode

global configuration mode

interface configuration mode

9.A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with "% Incomplete command". The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?

append ? to the last parameter

append a space and then ? to the last parameter

use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list

use the Tab key to show which options are available

10.Refer to the exhibit. 


How many collision domains are depicted in the network?

1

2

4

6

7

8


11.Refer to the exhibit. 


The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?

workstation C

workstations B and C

workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router

workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router

12.Where is the startup configuration stored?

DRAM

NVRAM

ROM

startup-config.text

13.If a network administrator enters these commands on a switch, what will be the result?

Switch1(config)# line console 0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login

to secure the console port with the password "cisco"

to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available

to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password

to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access

14.Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.

Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.

The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.

After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.

If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

15.Refer to the exhibit. 


Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?

hosts A and B

hosts B and C

hosts D and E

hosts A, B, and C

hosts B, C, D, and E

hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F

16.Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator has decided to allow only Secure Shell connections to Switch1. After the commands are applied, the administrator is able to connect to Switch1 using both Secure Shell and Telnet. What is most likely the problem?

incorrect vty lines configured

incorrect default gateway address

incompatible Secure Shell version

missing transport input ssh command

vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

17.Refer to the exhibit. 


What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?

SW1 drops the frame.

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.

SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.

18.Which statement is true about the command banner login "Authorized personnel Only" issued on a switch?

The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.

The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.

The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: "banner motd" ” to be displayed.

The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.

19.When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.

The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.

The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

20.Refer to the exhibit.

What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?

Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.

Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.

Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.

Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.

Read more »

Jul 18, 2012

CCNA 2 Chapter 11 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.Refer to the exhibit.


What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?

The number 2 is the autonomous system number.

The number 2 indicates the number of networks advertised by OSPF.

The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

The number 2 indicates the priority of the OSPF process on this router.

2.Router R1 is participating in the OSPF routing protocol as well as the EIGRP routing protocol.  If R1 learns of network 192.168.10.0/24 from both the OSPF and internal EIGRP routing protocols, how will the route appear in the routing table of R1?

Only the route learned from OSPF will appear in the routing table.

Only the route learned from EIGRP will appear in the routing table.

Both routes will appear in the routing table and they will be used for load balancing.

Neither route will appear in the routing table until the network administrator selects which one to use.

3.Refer to the exhibit. 


What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocolscommand?

B(config)# int fa0/0
B(config-if)# router-id 192.168.1.5

B(config)# int lo0
B(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.5

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

B (config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# ip address 192.168.1.5

4.Refer to the exhibit. 


Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)

DR for network 192.168.1.200

BDR for network 192.168.1.200

DROTHER on 192.168.1.200

DR for network 192.168.1.204

BDR for network 192.168.1.204

DROTHER on network 192.168.1.204

5.A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?

All routes for the entire network will be present.

Directly connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

Because the SPF algorithm has not completed all calculations, no routes will be in the table.

A summary route for all previously learned routes will automatically appear in the routing table until all LSPs have been received by the router.

6.Refer to the exhibit. 


Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR.

What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?

A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

A will become the DR. D will become the BDR.

A will become the DR. C will remain the BDR.

D will remain the DR. A will become the BDR.

D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

7.Refer to the exhibit. 


Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?

RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6

RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route

8.Refer to the exhibit.

When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?

A FULL adjacency is formed.

A 2WAY adjacency is formed.

Router2 will become the DR and Router1 will become the BDR.

Both routers will become DROTHERS.

9.Refer to the exhibit.

Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config-router)# network 10.16.1.0 0.0.0.224 area 0

B(config-router)# network 10.16.1.0 255.255.255.224 area 0

B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

10.What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24

192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24

192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24

11.Refer to the exhibit. 


The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps can the administrator take to accomplish this?

shut down the loop back interface

use the OSPF router-id 192.168.100.1 command

use the clear ip ospf process command

nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

12.Refer to the exhibit.

Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?

OSPF autonomous system IDs do not match.

OSPF process IDs do not match.

OSPF network types are identical.

OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.

13.What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?

bandwidth

bandwidth and hop count

bandwidth and reliability

bandwidth, load, and reliablity

14.Refer to the exhibit.

What is the cost of the route to the 172.16.2.128 network with the subnet mask of 255.255.255.128?

25

110

196

306

15.Refer to the exhibit.


What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0/1" line represent?

an internal type 2 OSPF route

an external OSPF route at least two hops away

an external OSPF route from two different sources

an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost

the route was distributed into OSPF from a type 2 router

16.What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

area id

K-values

metric value

hello interval

network type

interface type

17.Refer to the exhibit.

All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?

Router C cannot win a DR election under any circumstances.

If the link for interface 192.168.1.4 goes down, router B will become the new DR.

The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

If a new router is added with a higher router ID than router D, it will become the DR.

18.Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)

Elections are always optional.

Elections are required in all WAN networks.

Elections are required in point-to-point networks.

Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.

Elections are sometimes required in NBMA networks.

19.Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1, R2, and R3 have four local LANs attached.  What is a correct set of network commands that will cause OSPF to be enabled for any R1 interface that is connected to its subnets?

R1(config-router)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.7 area 0

R1(config-router)# network 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.7 area 0

R1(config-router)# network 10.10.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.8 0.0.0.3 area 0

R1(config-router)# network 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 10.10.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 10.10.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.7 area 0

20.Refer to the exhibit.

What OSPF packets will trigger the reset of the Dead Time counter?

hello packets

link-state update packets

link-state advertisement packets

OSPF routing database update packets

21.Refer to the exhibit. 


All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?

2

156

1564

1785

1787

22.Refer to the exhibit. 


How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?

4

5

6

7

10

23.What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)

root router

backup root router

domain router

backup domain router

designated router

backup designated router

24.Refer to the exhibit. 


RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?

RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.

RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.

RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.

RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.

RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.

There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

25.Refer to the exhibit. 


The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)

HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.

Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.

HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.

Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.

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