CCNA 2 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.Refer to the exhibit.

RIPv1 is running on all three routers. All interfaces have been correctly configured with addresses in the address ranges that are shown. Which route would you see in the routing table on router CHI if the routers are configured with the commands that are displayed in the exhibit?

192.168.0.4/30

192.168.0.0/24

192.168.0.0/16

192.168.0.32/27

2.Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).

It is a distance vector routing protocol.

It advertises the address and subnet mask for routes in routing updates.

The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a TCP segment.

The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

It broadcasts updates every 15 seconds.

It allows a maximum of 15 routers in the routing domain.

3.What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)

supports the use of VLSM

uses hop count as a metric

considers a metric of 16 as infinity

has an administrative distance of 110 by default

includes the destination IP address and subnet mask in routing updates

calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

4.Refer to the exhibit. 

A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?

whether all routes in the network have been properly added to the routing table

routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

operational status of routing protocols in use on all routers in the network

routing metric of each network that is listed in the routing table

5.Refer to the exhibit. 

All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?

only Router1

only the gateway router

all routers in the network

only the routers with LANs needing Internet access

6.Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?

RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

RIP v1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors.

RIP v1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates using a Class D address.

RIP v1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function effectively.

RIP v1 does not support load balancing across equal-cost paths.

RIP v1 authentication is complicated and time-consuming to configure.

7.Refer to the exhibit. 

What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?

A static default route has been configured on B.

The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

All traffic that is destined for 192.168.1.1 will be sent to address 0.0.0.0.

Hosts on the 10.16.1.0/27 network have 192.168.1.1 configured as the default gateway address.

8.Refer to the exhibit. 

All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?

All routers have all routes in their routing table.

All routers have all /30 routes, but do not have /24 routes in their routing table.

All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

All routers have all /30 routes. Routers B and D also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

Routers A and E have all routes. Routers B and D have only /30 routes in their routing table.

Routers A and E have only /24 routes. Routers B and D have only /30 routes in their routing table.

9.Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?

RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# shutdown

RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network no 192.168.2.0

RouterB(config)# no router rip

RouterB(config)# router no rip

10.Refer to the exhibit. 

The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?

Router1(config-router)# no router rip
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0

Router1(config-router)# no network 192.168.10.0

Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

Router1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0/0/0


11.Refer to the exhibit. 

Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the commandnetwork 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?

10.1.0.0/16

10.1.0.0/8

10.0.0.0/16

10.0.0.0/8

12.Refer to the exhibit.

Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?

no auto-summary

ip default-network 0.0.0.0

ip default-gateway 10.0.0.0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

13.What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?

The router will reject the command.

A route to the host address will be added to outgoing RIP updates.

A route to the host address will be added to the routing table.

All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

14.The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.


R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0


What is the value of the routing metric?

3

12

20

30

120

15.Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?

RouterB# router rip
RouterB(router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(router)# network 220.17.29.0
RouterB(router)# network 211.168.74.0

RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0

RouterB(config)# configure router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0

RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0

RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

16.Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?

debug ip rip

show ip route

show ip interface

show ip protocols

debug ip rip config

show ip rip database

17.Refer to the exhibit. 

The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still valid in the routing table of Router1. How much longer will it take for Router1 to mark the route invalid by setting the metric to 16?

30 seconds

90 seconds

155 seconds

180 seconds

255 seconds

18.Refer to the exhibit.

All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).

R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]

C 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]

R 10.10.3.0/24 [120/0]

C 10.10.3.0/24 [120/1]

R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/3]

19.What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?

10

12

15

20

30

60

Read more »

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)

routing loops

inconsistent traffic forwarding

no traffic forwarding until system converges

inconsistent routing table entries

routing table updates sent to wrong destinations

2.Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).

updates are broadcast only when there are changes to the topology

updates are broadcast at regular intervals

broadcast are sent to 0.0.0.0

broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

updates contain the entire network topology

only changes are included in the updates

3.What does the RIP holddown timer do?

ensures an invalid route has a metric of 15

prevents a router from sending any updates after it has introduced a routing loop into the network

ensures every new route is valid before sending an update

instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

4.What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?

used to mark routes as unreachable in updates sent to other routers

prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad

prevents a router from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came

limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

defines a maximum metric value for each distance vector routing protocol by setting a maximum hop count

5.Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?

uses a broadcast to update all other routers in the network every 60 seconds

uses a multicast address to update other routers every 90 seconds

will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

updates only contain information about routes that have changed since last update


6.Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)

EIGRP can be used with Cisco and non-Cisco routers.

EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.

EIGRP has an infinite metric of 16.

EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

EIGRP broadcasts its updates to all routers in the network.

7.Refer to the exhibit. 

What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?

The path will be router A -> router B -> router C -> router E.

The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

Router A will load balance between the router A -> router D -> router E and router A -> router B -> router C -> router E paths.

Packets will alternate paths depending on the order they arrive at router A.

8.What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)

RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.

During the next update interval, RouterB will send a RIP update out both ports that includes the inaccessible network.

During the next update interval, RouterC will send an update to RouterB stating that network 114.125.16.0 is accessible in 2 hops.

Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterC.

9.Refer to the exhibit. 

The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?

The Holddown timer will wait to remove the route from the table for 60 seconds.

The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

The Update timer will request an update for routes that were learned from Router B.

The Hello timer will expire after 10 seconds and the route will be flushed out of the routing table.

10.Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)

random jitter

implementation of classful addressing

inconsistent routing tables

incorrectly configured static routes

a network converging too quickly


11.The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?

split horizon

error condition

hold-down timer

route poisoning

count to infinity

12.Which event will cause a triggered update?

an update routing timer expires

a corrupt update message is received

a route is installed in the routing table

the network is converged

13.Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?

Routing updates are split in half to reduce the update time.

Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

New route information must be learned from multiple sources to be accepted.

The time between updates is split in half to speed convergence.

New route information is suppressed until the system has converged.

14.Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).

RIPv1

EIGRP

OSPF

IS-IS

RIPv2

15.Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?

It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by buffering the updates as they leave the router interfaces.

It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by causing the router to skip every other scheduled update time.

It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by forcing the router to listen when its time for other updates on the lines before sending its update.

16.A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)

EIGRP uses periodic updates.

EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.

EIGRP uses broadcast updates.

EIGRP updates are partial.

EIGRP uses the efficient Bellman-Ford algorithm.

17.What is a routing loop?

a packet bouncing back and forth between two loopback interfaces on a router

a condition where a return path from a destination is different from the outbound path forming a "loop"

a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

the distribution of routes from one routing protocol into another

18.Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?

They will share all routes saved in NVRAM prior to the power loss with their directly connected neighbors.

They will multicast hello packets to all other routers in the network to establish neighbor adjacencies.

They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

They will broadcast their full routing table to all routers in the network.

19.What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?

0

15

16

224

255

20.Refer to the exhibit. 

If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?

1

2

3

4

5

6

Read more »

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?

The routers in the network are operating with dynamic routing protocols.

The routers in the network are operating with compatible versions of IOS.

The routers in the network are operating with the same routing tables.

The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

2.The following line of code is present in the routing table:

O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1 


What does the number 129 indicate in this output?

The cost for this link has a value of 129.

The clock rate on this serial interface is set to 129,000.

The next-hop router is 129 hops away from this router.

This route has been updated 129 times in this routing table.

3.Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?

Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.

Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.

Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

4.The following line of code is displayed in a routing table: 

R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0


What can be concluded from this output?

A packet destined for host 192.168.252.2 will be forwarded out the interface connected to network 209.165.201.0/24.

The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

This route was manually configured using the ip route command.

192.168.252.2 is an interface on the router that produced this output.

5.A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?

The router will install the first route it learned into the routing table.

The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

The router will put the first route in the routing table, and denote the second route as a backup route.

The router will pick the path with the higher bandwidth and will place it in the routing table.

6.Refer to the exhibit. 

Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?

R1 will install a RIP route using network A in its routing table because the administrative distance of RIP is higher than EIGRP.

R1 will install a RIP route using network A in its routing table because the path cost from RIP is lower than EIGRP.

R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the path cost from EIGRP is lower than RIP.

R1 will install an EIGRP route and a RIP route in its routing table and load balance between them.


7.Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

sends subnet mask information in routing updates

sends complete routing table update to all neighbors

is supported by RIP version 1

allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

reduces the amount of address space available in an organization

8.Refer to the exhibit. 

Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?

Router1 will have 6 directly connected networks.

The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

The metric for routes to 172.16.0.0 will be 1.

The interface that is used to forward packets to 172.16.0.0 will always be the S0/1 interface.

9.Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)

RIP uses bandwidth as a metric.

OSPF uses delay as a metric.

EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.

OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

RIP uses delay as a metric.

EIGRP uses hop count only as a metric.



10.What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.

It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.

It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.

It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

11.Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.

A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.

The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator.

Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

The metric is always determined based on hop count.

The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP or IPX.


12.Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).

increased security

reduced effort in configuring routes

the administrator maintains control over routing

easier to implement in a growing network

reduces the chance of routing errors

increased router resource usage

13.Refer to the exhibit. 

If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?

3

4

56

624

724

14.An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?

The administrative distance of this route is 1.

192.168.1.2 is the address of an interface on this router.

This route will display as a directly connected network in the routing table.

Packets with a destination IP address of 192.168.1.2 will be forwarded to the 10.0.0.0/24 network first.

15.Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)

the network requires a special hierarchical design

fast convergence of the network is crucial

the network is using a hub and spoke topology

the network is using a flat design

there are more than 15 hops between the most distant routers


16.When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?

best metric

lowest hop count

greatest available bandwidth

lowest administrative distance

lowest cost

17.A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?

Distance vector routing protocols, such as RIP, converge more quickly than do link-state routing protocols.

EIGRP can be used on all of the routers in the company.

OSPF can be used between the routers.

An exterior routing protocol, such as BGP, is recommended for growing companies.

18.Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.

They only send out updates when a new network is added.

They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

They flood the entire network with routing updates.

19.What will be the result of the following commands? 

ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown

The 172.16.3.0 network will be routed by any dynamic routing protocol automatically.

A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

A static route is required to route traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network.

The commands will be saved to the startup-configuration automatically.


20.Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?

show ip protocols

show ip route

show ip interface brief

show ip interface

Read more »

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.Refer to the exhibit. 

How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?

Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/1.

There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will be dropped.

There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will take gateway of last resort and exit out S0/2.

2.Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)

ping

show arp

traceroute

show ip route

show controllers

show cdp neighbor

3.Refer to the exhibit.

What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0

A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

4.What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?

The route is removed from the table.

The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.

The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

5.Refer to the exhibit. 

What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

It indicates that there are 8 hops between this router and the 10.0.0.0 network.

It represents the time, in milliseconds, it takes for a ping to reply when sent to the 10.0.0.0 network.

It indicates that there are 8 subnets in the destination network to which the router can forward packets.

It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

6.Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.

By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.

Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

7.Refer to the exhibit. 

A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?

R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.2.1
R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

8.What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).

the serial port of the router

a modem

a switch

the ethernet port of the router

a CSU/DSU device

a DTE device

9.Refer to the exhibit. 

Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?

WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 198.18.222.0 255.255.255.255 s0/1

WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2

WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

10.Refer to the exhibit. 

Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?

The rate would be negotiated by both routers.

A rate would not be selected due to the DCE/DTE connection mismatch.

The rate configured on the DTE determines the clock rate.

The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

11.Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)

It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.

It operates at the network layer and allows two systems to learn about each other.

It creates a topology map of the entire network.

It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

It forwards advertisements about routes for faster convergence.

12.A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?

administrative distance of 0 and metric of 0

administrative distance of 0 and metric of 1

administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

administrative distance of 1 and metric of 1

13.Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?

Adding the next-hop address eliminates the need for the router to do any lookups in the routing table before forwarding a packet.

In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

Using a next-hop address in a static route provides a route with a lower metric.

In multi-access networks, using a next-hop address in a static route makes that route a candidate default route.

14.The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following: 

Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down. 


What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?

Serial0/1 is shutdown.

There is no cable connecting the routers.

The remote router is using serial 0/0.

No clock rate has been set.

15.Which address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.0.0/24 thru 172.16.7.0/24?

172.16.0.0/21

172.16.1.0/22

172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248

172.16.0.0 255.255.252.0


16.Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?

Interface speed and duplex

Interface MTU

Errors

Interface MAC address

Interface IP address

17.A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?

drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table

looks up the MAC address of the S0/1/0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame

performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S0/1/0 interface before forwarding the packet

encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

18.Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)

load

platform

reliability

holdtime

local interface


19.A router has one static route configured to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)

The destination network no longer exists.

The destination network is moved to a different interface on the same router.

The path between the source and destination is upgraded with a higher bandwidth link.

The remote destination network interface has to be down for 15 minutes of maintenance.

A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.


20.Refer to the exhibit.

Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?

ip route 192.168.0.0 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/1

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0


21.Refer to the exhibit. 

What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)

A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0

A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

A (config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/0/0

B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

B (config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.40.1

B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/1/0

Read more »

CCNA 1 Chapter 10 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.Refer to the exhibit. 

What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?

192.168.1.1

192.168.2.1

192.168.2.2

192.168.3.1

192.168.3.54


2.A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?

STP

UTP

coaxial

single-mode fiber

multimode fiber

3.Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?

AUX interface

Ethernet interface

serial interface

console interface

4.Refer to the exhibit. 

A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

wireless access point

router

hub

switch

5.What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?

loss of signal strength as distance increases

time for a signal to reach its destination

leakage of signals from one cable pair to another

strengthening of a signal by a networking device


6.Refer to the exhibit. 

A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

connecting a PC to a router's console port

connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports

connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds

connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds

connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds


7.Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

255.255.0.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.254.0

255.255.248.0

8.A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.192

255.255.255.224

255.255.255.240

255.255.255.248

9.Refer to the exhibit. 

How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?

2

3

4

5


10.What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)

cable color code association

cable selection and configuration

use of cable testers to determine pinouts

the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs


11.To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?

crossover cable

straight through cable

rollover cable

V.35 cable

12.Refer to the exhibit. 

Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

both host A and B would be successful

host A would be successful, host B would fail

host B would be successful, host A would fail

both Host A and B would fail


13.What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

greater distances per cable run

lower installation cost

limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI

durable connections

greater bandwidth potential

easily terminated

14.Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?

hub

router

firewall appliance

wireless access point

15.Refer to the exhibit. 

Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)

Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.

Five broadcast domains are present.

Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.

Four broadcast domains are present.

Five networks are shown.

Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

16.Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)

They propagate broadcasts.

They enlarge collision domains.

They segment broadcast domains.

They interconnect different network technologies.

Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.

They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

17.Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

hub

switch

bridge

router

repeater

18.How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

30

256

2046

2048

4094

4096


19.What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

cross-over

straight-through

rollover

patch cable

20.Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)

RJ 11

DB 60

Winchester 15 pin

DB 9

smart serial

RJ 45

21.Refer to the exhibit. 

A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that is shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?

255.255.255.128

255.255.255.192

255.255.255.224

255.255.255.240

255.255.255.248

22.Refer to the exhibit. 

Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.

Segment 1 uses a patch cable.

Segment 3 uses patch cabling.

Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.

Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.

Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

23.Refer to the exhibit.

Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

1

3

4

5

7

Read more »

CCNA 1 Chapter 9 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

85

90

BA

A1

B3

1C


2.What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

MAC sublayer

Physical layer

Logical Link Control sublayer

Network layer


3.Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

Network layer

Transport layer

Physical layer

Application layer

Session layer

Data-link layer


4.What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

recognizes streams of bits

identifies the network layer protocol

makes the connection with the upper layers

identifies the source and destination applications

insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment

determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting


5.What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

addressing

error detection

frame delimiting

port identification

path determination

IP address resolution



6.In the graphic,

 Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.

Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.

Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.

Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.



7.After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address

the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address

any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first

those that began transmitting at the same time


8.When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.

The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.

The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

9.Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

reduction in cross-talk

minimizing of collisions

support for UTP cabling

division into broadcast domains

increase in the throughput of communications

10.Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. 
Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

Host A will get a result of 172.16.224.0 from the AND process.

Host A will send on to the media a broadcast frame that contains the packet.

Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.

Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.

Host A will encapsulate the packet in a frame with a destination MAC that is the MAC address associated with 172.16.224.1.


11.Refer to the exhibit. 

Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.

A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.

A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.

A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.

A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.


12.What is the primary purpose of ARP?

translate URLs to IP addresses

resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices

convert internal private addresses to external public addresses


13.Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

dynamically assigned

copied into RAM during system startup

layer 3 address

contains a 3 byte OUI

6 bytes long

32 bits long

14.Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.

A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.

A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.

A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

15.Refer to the exhibit. 

The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

No collisions will occur on this link.

Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.

The switch will have priority for transmitting data.

The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

16.Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame

the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame

the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size

the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization

the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame

the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

17.Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

Collisions can decrease network performance.

It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.

Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.

CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

18.Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

application

physical

transport

internet

data link

network access

19.Refer to the exhibit. 

Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?

preamble and stop frame

network layer packet

physical addressing

FCS and SoF

20.What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

coaxial thicknet

copper UTP

coaxial thinnet

optical fiber

shielded twisted pair

Read more »

CCNA 1 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

generally uses LEDs as the light source

relatively larger core with multiple light paths

less expensive than multimode

generally uses lasers as the light source


2.When is a rollover cable used in a network?

for connecting a host to a Fast Ethernet port on a switch

for connecting a router to another router

for connecting two routers through their AUX ports

for connecting to a switch through its console port


3.With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire

the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs

the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable

the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

4.What is a purpose of the physical layer in data communication?

to wrap data packets into frames

to make sure that MAC addresses are unique in each frame

to control the access sequence of frames to the transmission media

to convert a frame into a series of signals to be transmitted on the local media


5.What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.

Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.

An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.

The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

6.Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

It is not affected by EMI or RFI.

Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.

It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.

It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.

It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

7.An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

light injector

OTDR

TDR

multimeter

8.In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

coax

fiber

Cat5e UTP

Cat6 UTP

STP

9.Which data communications standard provides broadband access in a wireless network?

GSM

Wi-Fi

WiMAX

Bluetooth

10.Compared with UTP cable, what extra characteristic of STP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

the metal braiding in the shielding

the reflective cladding around the core

the twisting of the wires in the cable

the insulating material in the outer jacket

11.Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

backbone cable

horizontal cable

patch cable

work area cable

12.Which connector is used with twisted-pair cabling in an Ethernet LAN?

13.A customer installs a wireless access point at home in the closet next to the kitchen.  The customer mentions that the wireless communication performance seems degraded when the cordless phone or the microwave oven is in use.  What is the possible reason for this degradation?

The access point is close to walls.

The cordless phone joins the WLAN and shares the available bandwidth.

The wireless signal is in the same radio frequency range as the household devices are in.

The access point is on the same electrical circuit as the phone base unit and microwave oven are.

The surge of electricity when a microwave oven is in use disrupts the operation of the access point.

14.What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

goodput

frequency

amplitude

throughput

crosstalk

bandwidth

15.Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

16.Which OSI layer is responsible for managing optical signals used for data communication?

presentation

data link

transport

physical

17.Refer to the exhibit.

An ISP donates some decommissioned Cisco 2600 series routers to a local high school.  The high school plans to use these routers in their networking classrooms for students to practice. Which type of cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between routers RTA and RTB?

coax cable

rollover cable

crossover cable

straight-through cable

Read more »

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 V4.0 Answers Updated 2012

1.Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

the Layer 3 protocol selected

the geographic scope of the network

the PDU defined by the transport layer

the physical layer implementation

the number of hosts to be interconnected

2.Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

non-deterministic

less overhead

one station transmits at a time

collisions exist

devices must wait their turn

token passing

3.What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

The nodes are physically connected.

The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.

The media access control protocol can be very simple.

The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

4.What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

is used as a padding for data

is used for timing synchronization

is used to identify the source address

is used to identify the destination address

5.What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD

defined as placement of data frames on the media

contention-based access is also known as deterministic

802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD

Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media

controlled access contains data collisions

6.Refer to the exhibit. 

Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?

00-1c-41-ab-c0-00

00-0c-85-cf-65-c0

00-0c-85-cf-65-c1

00-12-3f-32-05-af

7.What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

provide routes across the internetwork

format the data for presentation to the user

facilitate the entry and exit of data on media

identify the services to which transported data is associated

8.What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card

Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating

Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme

Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network

Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

9.What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

network layer addressing

media sharing

application processes

logical topology

intermediary device function

10.Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.

Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.

Data from a host is received by all other hosts.

Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

11.A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

logical topology

physical topology

cable path

wiring grid

access topology

12.Refer to the exhibit. 

How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

1

2

4

6

8

16

13.Refer to the exhibit. 

A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

source MAC - PC

source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA

source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB

source IP - PC

source IP - S0/0 on RouterA

source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

14.Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

LLC

MAC

HDLC

NIC


15.What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.

The default gateway address should not be changed.

The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.

Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.

The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16.What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

define the logical topology

provide media access control

support frame error detection

carry routing information for the frame

17.What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.

Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.

Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.

Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

18.What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data

provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts

provides delivery of data between two applications

provides for the exchange data over a common local media

19.Refer to the exhibit. 

Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

All three networks use CSMA/CA

None of the networks require media access control.

Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.

Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.

Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

20.What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

They are 48 binary bits in length.

They are considered physical addresses.

They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.

They are used to determine the data path through the network.

They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

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